More of a hypothetical.
A civilian, who is carrying concealed, and for whatever reason is forced to use his/her weapon. The shoot ends with the bad guy dead, and is ruled justified by law enforcement.
It then comes to light that the civilian had OC spray on their person, but it wasn't used.
Could this pose a problem, either civilly or criminally? Could the question later be asked why the CCWer didn't just use the pepper spray, a less lethal alternative, to subdue the threat?
(That question is completely stupid if deadly force was justified and articulated, I know)
If someone is carrying concealed, should that firearm be the only level of force they have available?
A civilian, who is carrying concealed, and for whatever reason is forced to use his/her weapon. The shoot ends with the bad guy dead, and is ruled justified by law enforcement.
It then comes to light that the civilian had OC spray on their person, but it wasn't used.
Could this pose a problem, either civilly or criminally? Could the question later be asked why the CCWer didn't just use the pepper spray, a less lethal alternative, to subdue the threat?
(That question is completely stupid if deadly force was justified and articulated, I know)
If someone is carrying concealed, should that firearm be the only level of force they have available?
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